Hosea 1:7

I recently started reading Hosea and noticed a small feature in 1:7:  "'But I will have mercy on the house of Judah, and I will save them by the LORD their God.  I will not save them by bow or by sword or by war or by horses or by horsemen.'"  The second sentence exhibits polysyndeton (the repeated conjunction "or"), and this emphasizes the contrast between the one who will save them and the many things that will not.

Proverbs 13:16

While reading Proverbs 13 last month, I noticed a small feature in verse 16:  "In everything the prudent acts with knowledge, but a fool flaunts his folly."  As if to highlight that "flaunt[ing]," that half of the verse has both alliteration and consonance ("a fool flaunts his folly").  I lookt at some other translations, but of what I have, this feature is unique to the ESV.

John 4:14

I watched Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade last month, and I started wondering whether the Latin inscription on the Grail tablet ("Quisquid bibit aquam...") had any similarity to John 4 in the Latin Vulgate.  I lookt it up and found that the Vulgate has different indefinite pronouns.

While looking this up, though, I noticed an error in verse 14 in the NIV translation.  "ὃς δ᾽ ἂν πίῃ ἐκ τοῦ ὕδατος οὗ ἐγὼ δώσω αὐτῷ, οὐ μὴ διψήσει εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα, ἀλλὰ τὸ ὕδωρ ὃ δώσω αὐτῷ γενήσεται ἐν αὐτῷ πηγὴ ὕδατος ἁλλομένου εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον" is rendered as "but whoever drinks the water I give them will never thirst.  Indeed, the water I give them will become in them a spring of water welling up to eternal life."  If I understand my Greek correctly, αὐτῷ is singular, but the NIV translates it as "them" (three times!).  Not only is this an inaccurate translation, but it also creates a grammatical problem in the English translation:  there's a disagreement in number between the plural "them" and the singular antecedent "whoever."