John 4:14

I watched Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade last month, and I started wondering whether the Latin inscription on the Grail tablet ("Quisquid bibit aquam...") had any similarity to John 4 in the Latin Vulgate.  I lookt it up and found that the Vulgate has different indefinite pronouns.

While looking this up, though, I noticed an error in verse 14 in the NIV translation.  "ὃς δ᾽ ἂν πίῃ ἐκ τοῦ ὕδατος οὗ ἐγὼ δώσω αὐτῷ, οὐ μὴ διψήσει εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα, ἀλλὰ τὸ ὕδωρ ὃ δώσω αὐτῷ γενήσεται ἐν αὐτῷ πηγὴ ὕδατος ἁλλομένου εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον" is rendered as "but whoever drinks the water I give them will never thirst.  Indeed, the water I give them will become in them a spring of water welling up to eternal life."  If I understand my Greek correctly, αὐτῷ is singular, but the NIV translates it as "them" (three times!).  Not only is this an inaccurate translation, but it also creates a grammatical problem in the English translation:  there's a disagreement in number between the plural "them" and the singular antecedent "whoever."

John 4:9

About a month ago, the Daily Dose of Greek went over John 4:9:

"The Samaritan woman said to him, 'How is it that you, a Jew, ask for a drink from me, a woman of Samaria?'  (For Jews have no dealings with Samaritans.)"

I found it interesting that while the meaning is "Jews have no dealings with Samaritans," the words for "Jews" and "Samaritans" are next to each other.

My French New Testament is exactly the opposite in this regard.  Almost as an illustration of this comment, "Jews" and "Samaritans" are as far apart as they can be in the sentence:  "Les Juifs, en effet, n'ont pas de relations avec les Samaritains."