dixit autem hoc non quia de egenis pertinebat ad eum sed quia fur erat et loculos habens ea quae mittebantur portabat
In the ESV, this is:
He [Judas Iscariot] said this, not because he cared about the poor, but because he was a thief, and having charge of the moneybag he used to help himself to what was put into it.
Where the ESV has "not because he cared about the poor," the Latin has "non quia de egenis pertinebat ad eum." This is something like: "not because about the destitute, it pertained to him." The Greek text is comparable:
εἶπεν δὲ τοῦτο οὐχ ὅτι περὶ τῶν πτωχῶν ἔμελεν αὐτῷ, ἀλλ᾽ ὅτι κλέπτης ἦν καὶ τὸ γλωσσόκομον ἔχων τὰ βαλλόμενα ἐβάσταζεν.
Like the Latin pertinēre, the Greek verb μέλω is impersonal. I'm not sure if a native speaker of either of these languages would take it this way, but it seems to me that this sort of construction (where Judas isn't the subject of the verb) lends a greater sense of the distance between him and the poor. Even grammatically, there's less of a relationship between them.
