For what it's worth: in my German New Testament, this participial is translated as a prepositional phrase ("mit Vollmacht" "with power"), but my French New Testament retains it as a participial ("ayant autorité").
Showing posts with label Mark 1. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Mark 1. Show all posts
Sunday, February 25, 2024
Mark 1:22
I'm still behind on watching Worship Anew programs, but when I watched the program for 28 January (the Fourth Sunday after Epiphany) a couple weeks ago, I noticed a significant contrast in the Gospel reading from Mark 1. In the ESV, Mark 1:22 is "And they [the people in the synagogue] were astonished at his [Jesus'] teaching, for he taught them as one who had authority, and not as the scribes." While following along in the Latin Vulgate, I noticed that what's translated as a relative clause in the ESV ("who had authority") is a participial in the Latin ("potestatem habens"), as it is in the Greek (ἐξουσίαν ἔχων), so it's more like "having authority." Since participles are verbal adjectives, there's some of the action quality of a verb here, and this contrasts with the more static nature of the noun "scribes" (γραμματεῖς, "scribae").
Sunday, December 22, 2019
Mark 1:18, 20
Although I'm a couple weeks behind, I've been following the "re-runs" of Daily Dose of Greek videos on Mark as they're posted on YouTube. (When I subscribed to the Daily Dose of Greek emails back in October 2016, they were in Mark 10; so far, these "re-runs" are new to me.)
I noticed the same feature in Mark 1:18 and Mark 1:20:
Mark 1:20: "And immediately he called them, and they left their father Zebedee in the boat with the hired servants and followed him."
Dr. Plummer says one could translate the participle ἀφέντες (leaving) "like another main verb," and all of the translations I lookt at do this (although my French New Testament does render it as a participle in verse 20: "Aussitôt, il les appela; et, laissant leur père Zébédée dans la barque avec les ouvriers, ils le suivirent.").
I would argue that it should be translated not as a finite verb but as a participle, partially because it's a participle in the original Greek but mostly because this leaves only a single verb in each sentence and those verbs are the most significant action: following Jesus.
(For what it's worth, here's a link to the interlinear.)
I noticed the same feature in Mark 1:18 and Mark 1:20:
Mark 1:18: "And immediately they left their nets and followed him."
Mark 1:20: "And immediately he called them, and they left their father Zebedee in the boat with the hired servants and followed him."
Dr. Plummer says one could translate the participle ἀφέντες (leaving) "like another main verb," and all of the translations I lookt at do this (although my French New Testament does render it as a participle in verse 20: "Aussitôt, il les appela; et, laissant leur père Zébédée dans la barque avec les ouvriers, ils le suivirent.").
I would argue that it should be translated not as a finite verb but as a participle, partially because it's a participle in the original Greek but mostly because this leaves only a single verb in each sentence and those verbs are the most significant action: following Jesus.
(For what it's worth, here's a link to the interlinear.)
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